June 11, 2012 | By | Reply More


52   cardiovascular mcq  : : :

1.             What is the best prognostic indicator for pregnancy in a patient in the first trimester with mitral stenosis?

  1. symptoms prior to pregnancy
  2. long murmur
  3. displaced apex beat
  4. loud murmur
  5. MVA<0.6 cm2

2.             A male patient, on amiodarone 200 mg daily, who is post myocardial infarct and has VT resistant to sotalol.   Now has neuropathy  from the amiodarone – what do you do next?

  1. continue amiodarone 200 mg daily and add pyridoxine
  2. stop amiodarone for 4 days and decrease to 100 mg / day
  3. decrease amiodarone to 100 mg daily
  4. stop amiodarone for 4 weeks, then restart 100 mg / day
  5. change to flecainide

3.             Runner with palpitations. ECG shown: wenckebach.   What next?

  1. Insertion of permanent pacemaker
  2. coronary angiography
  3. reassurance
  4. Stress ECG
  5. stress thallium

4.             Pressure trace question:  elderly male, history of heart failure, one episode of syncope, a few episodes of pulmonary oedema resistant to lasix and digoxin.   Started on captopril, had syncope, pressure tracing shown (left ventricular pressure up to 200, aortic pressure 120/80).   What is the best management?

  1. increase frusemide
  2. balloon valvuloplasty
  3. aortic valve replacement.

5.             Young 24 year old male, saw LMO, found to have 1/6 systolic murmur, BP 120/70. ECG shown: sinus rhythm, LVH on voltage criteria, Q in III, T wave inversion in aVL.   Diagnosis:

  1. HOCM
  2. normal
  3. coarctation of aorta
  4. bicuspid aortic valve

6.             Young male who was at work, previously well, suddenly collapsed.   BP 80/40.   Had continuous systolic murmur with diastolic accentuation.   Catheter performed:

RA sat was 55%                                  RA pressure 8

RV 85% PA 85%                                 RV pressure 40

wedge sat 95%                                     Wedge pressure 7

LV 95%                                                 LV pressure 80/12

PA pressure 40

What is the cause?

  1. VSD and Aortic incompetence
  2. ASD
  3. dissection
  4. right sinus of valsalva rupture
  5. coarctation of aorta

7.             Young male with broad complex tachycardia after drinking alcohol.   BP 100/70   How would you treat?

  1. lignocaine
  2. iv digoxin
  3. flecainide
  4. adenosine
  5. carotid sinus massage

8.             Male admitted with pain in neck with 40 mmHg BP difference.   (Clinical picture of dissection).   Best management?

  1. beta blocker and nitrate
  2. anticoagulate
  3. thrombolysis
  4. d urgent angiogram
  5. close observation.

9.             Lady with hypertension for investigation,: K+ 3.2, urinary adrenaline of 500, urinary noradrenaline of 700.   Next investigation?

  1. CT adrenals
  2. venous sampling of adrenals
  3. angiogram

10.          Middle aged man long history of increasing dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND and ankle oedema.   Examination confirms CCF.   CXR shown – calcified pericardium.   Cardiac catheterisation is likely to show:             

  1. giant CV waves
  2. equal RV and LV systolic pressures
  3. equal RA and PCW pressures
  4. RV diastolic pressure > LV diastolic pressure
  5. ­ PCWP with inspiration
  6. ¯ early diastolic filling

11.          56 year old with ischaemic chest pain.   Smoker, CK 800.   Given tPA with rapid decrease in symptoms.   Q waves and idioventricular rhythm.   What would you see on angiography?

  1. Occluded left circumflex
  2. Occluded LAD with poor LV function
  3. 70% LAD and 40% circumflex and 40% RCA
  4. Normal LAD, occluded RCA.


12.          With respect to estimation of diastolic heart failure which of the following statements are true:

  1. reversal of the E/A ratio is a common finding in elderly patients
  2. diastolic heart failure is usually absent in significant impairment of systolic function
  3. estimation of systolic function (ejection fraction measurements) correlate better with symptoms of dyspnoea than estimates of diastolic function
  4. myocardial fibrosis is a significant contributor to reduction in compliance
  5. reduced diastolic function during the rapid filling phase is due dependent active myocardial relaxation in overall chamber to reduced energy


13.          With respect to coronary vein graft disease

  1. early graft failure of approximately 10% in the first year post-surgery is due to accelerated atheroma in the post-operative period
  2. at ten years post coronary bypass grafting about 70% of patients will not show major disease progression in the bypass grafts
  3. aggressive LDL lowering with statin drugs has been documented to result in reduction of disease progression in coronary bypass grafts.
  4. screening patients with bypass grafts greater than ten years old with exercise testing would be expected to have a low rate of detection of recurrent disease
  5. all patients after coronary bypass surgery should be treated with a HMG-CoA reductase inhibitor

14.          A 60 yo female had an acute myocardial infarction 12 months ago, following which she had life-threatening ventricular tachycardia. She has been noted to have very poor LV function.   On 200 mg per day of amiodarone, which has been controlling the arrhythmias, she has developed a peripheral neuropathy.   The next step in her management:

  1. Decrease dose to 100 mg od after stopping for 4 weeks
  2. Leave 200 mg and add pyridoxine
  3. Change to flecainide
  4. Decrease to 100 mg immediately

15.          A young male with recent viral illness complains of palpitations. He is found to have a systolic murmur and an ECG is shown LVH by voltage criteria, high take-off Vl, V3, I, aVL. The most likely diagnosis is:

  1. Normal variant
  2. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
  3. Dilated cardiomyopathy
  4. Pericarditis
  5. Aortic stenosis

16.          A fit 40 yo male presents with palpitations.   An ECG is taken during sleep shows Wenkebach and rate >40/min.   Your management would be:

  1. Insertion of pacemaker
  2. Reassure
  3. Perform EPS
  4. coronary angiography
  5. b blocker

17.          A cardiac catheter study is shown of an elderly male with increasing episodes of CCF.  He was trialled on an ACE inhibitor and experienced pre-syncope.  The carotid pulse is noted to be diminished.   (Cath tracing shows large LV to aortic gradient  100 mmHg at peak, only one heart beat shown but ECG shows an ectopic).   The best management would be:

  1. Aortic valve replacement
  2. b blocker
  3. Balloon aortic valvuloplasty
  4. Frusemide

18.          An ECG is shown with a wide complex tachycardia.   Patient is conscious with slightly low BP.   History of alcohol use is given.   ECG controversial (either AF with aberrancy, or VT). The best treatment would be:

  1. Carotid sinus massage
  2. Adenosine
  3. Flecainide
  4. Lignocaine
  5. iv Digoxin

19.          A young male experiences sudden onset of chest pain on lifting.   BP 80/40.   Continuous murmur with diastolic accentuation.   Catheter study  shown:

                                Sats                        Pressures

                RA          55%                        8

                RV          85%                        40

                PA           85%                        40

                wedge     95%                        7

                LV          95%                        80/12

The most likely diagnosis?

  1. VSD + AR
  2. Ruptured sinus of Valsalva
  3. ASD
  4. dissection
  5. coarctation

20.          In which of the following situations would it be most appropriate to use adenosine:

  1. Asthmatic with a narrow-complex tachycardia
  2. 44 yo male in AF with no history of heart disease
  3. 58 yo male with previous infarct and narrow-complex tachycardia
  4. Patient with IHD and wide-complex tachycardia

21.          A young person is described with ECG showing wide-complex AF.   Which of the following would you use:

  1. Digoxin
  2. Verapamil
  3. Adenosine
  4. Flecainide
  5. Metoprolol

22.          A patient suffers an infarct, with ECG showing ST elevation V2-V5.   Shortly after receiving tPA, there is a short run of ventricular tachycardia but then the ST segments return to baseline.   The most likely findings on coronary angiogram are:

  1. Partial occlusion RCA
  2. 70% LAD stenosis and 40% circumflex and RCA stenosis
  3. Complete occlusion LAD with poor LV function
  4. Partial circumflex occlusion
  5. Severe triple vessel disease

23.          A young female presents in first trimester of pregnancy with mitral stenosis.   Which of the following is the best predictor of outcome?

  1. Length of the murmur
  2. Pre-pregnancy symptoms
  3. Valve area on echocardiography
  4. Displacement of apex beat
  5. Severity of symptoms

24.          Which of the following is most likely to prolong the QT interval?

  1. Low K+
  2. High Ca2+
  3. Flecainide
  4. Digoxin

25.          Concerning cardiovascular physiology:

  1. Difference in arterial and venous oxygen saturation is inversely proportional to blood flow.
  2. Valve area in aortic stenosis is proportional to the square of the pressure gradient across the valve.
  3. Peripheral vascular resistance is primarily determined by resting arterial tone.
  4. Nitric oxide stimulates adhesion of platelets to the vascular endothelium.
  5. Adrenergic activity increases myocardial contractility via an increase in cGMP levels within the myocyte leading to an increase in intracellular ionised calcium.

26.          Concerning atherosclerosis

  1. Oxidation of LDL in the bloodstream is necessary for foam cells to form
  2. A vasoconstrictor rather than a vasodilator response to endothelial dysfunction indicates acetylcholine
  3. A deficiency of nitric oxide has been measured in atherosclerotic plaques
  4. The absence of smooth muscle cell proliferation indicates it is primarily a disease of the intima
  5. Plaques are more likely to rupture if they are concentric

27.          Mitral regurgitation:

  1. ¯ afterload
  2. ­ myocardial O2 consumption
  3. Circumferential LV shortening
  4. Systolic anterior motion associated with mitral valve prolapse
  5. Associated with Marfan’s

28.          Which of the following are associated with haemodynamic compromise in SVT?

  1. Long QT
  2. P wave morphology
  3. P – QRS dissociation
  4. QRS width
  5. Ventricular rate

29.          Pregnancy induced hypertension:

  1. Is caused by the trophoblast
  2. Associated with increased intravascular volume
  3. Involves genetic predisposition
  4. Is more likely in young primigravida
  5. Increased pressor sensitivity

30.          HOCM associated with

  1. X-linked recessive
  2. ¯ ventricular volume
  3. Pulmonary venous congestion
  4. Diastolic dysfunction
  5. Abnormal myosin

31.          Pharmacokinetics in CCF

  1. If high hepatic extraction ¯ clearance
  2. If low hepatic extraction ¯ oral availability
  3. IV administration produces ¯ volume of distribution
  4. ­ binding to albumin

32.          Which of the following is not consistent with pure diastolic dysfunction?

  1. Elevated end diastolic pressure
  2. Chamber of normal size.
  3. Abnormal-sized heart on xray
  4. May be part of any type of left ventricular disease
  5. Reduced ejection fraction

33.          With regard to myocardial infarction, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. Right ventricular infarcts are with reduced morbidity and mortality rates compared with left ventricular events
  2. Individuals with an inferior infarct have a reduced 30-day mortality, compared with those suffering anterior infarctions
  3. In patients with a right-sided infarct in whom there is early revascularisation of the infarct-related artery, in-hospital mortality is considerably less than in patients who are not adequately reperfused.
  4. In right ventricular infarction there is a marked improvement in haemodynamic arid mechanical parameters of right ventricular infarction following revascularisation in contrast with left-sided myocardial infarction
  5. Mortality following non-Q wave infarction is significantly reduced in patients treated with beta-blockade.

34.          The inherited long QT syndrome is characterised by a history of syncope arid sudden cardiac death.   Regarding the genetic basis of this disorder, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. This syndrome may be associated with congenital blindness
  2. Potassium supplementation corrects the repolarisation abnormality in some cases of the long QT syndrome.
  3. The long QT syndrome may be associated with an abnormal potassium channel.
  4. Long QT syndrome may be caused by mutations in cardiac sodium channels.
  5. Acquired and inherited long QT syndromes may both cause ventricular arrhythmias arid may have a similar molecular basis.

35.          Familial hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a disorder largely affecting cardiac myocytes.   It is characterised by unexplained ventricular hypertrophy and histological evidence of myofibrillar disarray.   With respect to the molecular genetic basis of HOCM, which of the following statements is true?

  1. A genetic abnormality can be inherited in the absence of ventricular hypertrophy
  2. Missense mutations that result in an amino acid with a change in charge appear to be associated with a more benign prognosis.
  3. Only candidate genes encoding myosin proteins have been associated with familial HOCM.
  4. Patients without extensive myocardial hypertrophy or aortic outflow obstruction have a benign prognosis.
  5. The prognosis is similar irrespective of the mutation location in the P myosin heavy chain gene.

36.          A 45 yo man with known IHD presents with hypertension.   He has been getting infrequent angina and is currently on atenolol 50 mg daily.   Next best treatment?

  1. thiazide
  2. imdur
  3. enalapril
  4. prazosin
  5. diltiazem

37.          65 yo man with history of CVA in past now on warfarin for AF.   INR usually stable but now presents with melaena and INR >8.   The co-administered medication most likely to cause this is;

  1. phenytoin
  2. enalapril
  3. erythromycin
  4. propranolol
  5. verapamil

38.          45 yo old pilot undergoes routine annual physical examination and MEST.   The EST shows 1.5 mm upsloping ST depression laterally in the absence of pain.   An exercise-thallium is shown – there are reversible perfusion defection in the anterior, lateral and apical regions.   The diagnosis is?

  1. false positive stress test
  2. 3v CAD
  3. evidence of anterior ischaemia
  4. old posterior infarct
  5. HOCM
  6. tricuspid valve disease

39.          A 40 yo marathon runner complains of an occasional irregular heartbeat.   A 12 lead ECG is normal.   A holter strip is shown, demonstrating wenckebach.   The most appropriate mgt is?

  1. I/O PPM
  2. angiography
  3. reassurance
  4. stress ECG
  5. stress thallium

40.          A 22 yo female presents with SOB.   She has a BMI of 30 (150% of predicted), a history of rheumatic fever, and a cleft palate.   The following cardiac results were obtained;

                                                          O2  sats

                SVC                                        71%

                IVC                                        77%

                RA                                          76%

                RV                                          79%

                femoral artery                      97%

You would:

  1. close the sinus venosus ASD
  2. correct the VSD
  3. give diuretics
  4. encourage weight loss
  5. give penicillin prophylaxis

41.          A 14 yo boy presents with a systolic murmur with normal splitting of S1 and S2 during inspiration.   It is pansystolic and loudest at the LSE.   The murmur becomes softer wit valsalva manoeuvre.   CXR normal, JVPNE.   Murmur has been present since age 2.   The cause is?

  1. MVP
  2. HOCM
  3. VSD
  4. ASD
  5. congenital aortic stenosis

42.          An elderly man with known aortic stenosis has now become symptomatic.   Peak grad 44 mmHg, LVEF 30%.   Best mgt is?

  1. antifailure medications
  2. AVR
  3. balloon valvuloplasty
  4. heart transplant

43.          30 yo woman, 2nd trimester.   History of mitral stenosis, now in AF.   Systolic and mid-diastolic murmurs heard.   Echo shows mild MR, MV valve area 0.6 cm2 without calcification, fusion at commisure, non-redundant leaflet, and a pliable valve with moderately severe pulmonary hypertension.   Best mgt is:

  1. open heart MV replacement
  2. balloon valvuloplasty
  3. medical therapy
  4. termination
  5. open MV valvuloplasty

44.          Elderly man with past history of AMI and recently-inserted VVD pacemaker presents with palpitations.   An ECG is shown – broad complex, negative concordance, dissociated p waves at a rate of 300/min, irregularly irregular rate 60 – 100 with no pacing spikes.   Diagnosis is/

  1. pacemaker-induced tachycardia
  2. VT
  3. AF
  4. Aflutter
  5. AIVR
  6. re-entrant tachycardia

45.          70 yo man with a history of TIA, hypertension and no other risks for IHD presents with AF.   best mgt would be:

  1. warfarin with INR 2 – 3
  2. warfarin with INR 1.5 – 1.8
  3. warfarin with INR 1.5 – 2.5
  4. aspirin alone
  5. heparin
  6. digoxin
  7. persantin

46.          An elderly woman who has hypertension, AF, CCF and arthralgia presents with nausea and vomiting.   Medications include digoxin, frusemide, slow K.   Recently commenced on enalapril and NSAID.   BP 130/80, HR 100.   Creat has gone from 0.14 to 0.22.   Digoxin level 2.8.   Best mgt?

  1. stop digoxin and enalapril and check digoxin level in 2/7
  2. decrease digoxin dose and check digoxin level in 6/7
  3. stop digoxin, enalapril and lasix
  4. stop digoxin, enalapril, lasix and NSAID and check digoxin level in 24 hours
  5. stop digoxin
  6. halve digoxin and stop NSAID

47.          A diabetic, hypertensive male with IHD and frequent angina is referred for management of his hypertension.   He is on atenolol 50 mg daily and has BP 166/98 and HR 64.   Next drug to add?

  1. ACE inhibitor
  2. imdur
  3. diltiazem
  4. prazosin
  5. bendrofluazide

48.          65 yo male presents in pulmonary oedema.   Current Rx is digoxin and a diuretic.   Echo shows LV hypertrophy and dilatation with ¯ systolic function and a peak aortic gradient of 43 mmHg, with a mean gradient of 30 mmHg.   Best therapy is?

  1. AVR
  2. ACE inhibitor
  3. balloon valvuloplasty
  4. nitrates
  5. transplant

49.          With regard to serum markers of myocardial injury, which of the following is true?

  1. TnI and TnC regulate the calcium-independent interactions between actin and myosin
  2. CK-Mb is elevated in 5% of patients 4 hours after onset of symptoms in AMI
  3. LDH remains elevated for the longest duration after MI
  4. TNFa levels indicate size of infarct
  5. TnT levels are non-specific following rhabdomyolysis

50.          A 78 yo man is admitted with purulent sputum, chest pain and SOB.   CXR shows LLL pneumonia.   CK rises to 850 on day 2, and TnT at days 4 & 6 is <0.02 (NR <0.02).   The SOB improves with antibiotics and frusemide.   He continues to complain of chest pain, relieved by morphine.   There are no ischaemic changes on his ECG.   Repeat TnT on days 8 and 10 are 0.03.   Which is the most likely diagnosis?

  1. AMI
  2. Dressler syndrome
  3. UAP
  4. PE
  5. Empyema

51.          A 54 yo hypertensive presents with sever chest pain.   He is sweaty and pale.   BP 180/100.   There is a 2/6 murmur of AI.   The CXR is normal.   ECG shows 1 mm ST elevation in V2 – V4.   Best initial management?

  1. iv nitrates and heparin
  2. TTE
  3. thrombolysis
  4. urgent angiogram
  5. morphine and monitor regular 12 lead ECGs

52.          A CCU patient develops VF.   You are called to run the resus.   Which of the following is incorrect?

  1. The chances of successful defibrillation decline by approx 2 – 7% for each minute the patient remains in cardiac arrest
  2. The ABCs of basic life support slow the rate of depletion of myocardial high energy phosphate stores
  3. Overall survival in hospital after CPR averages 14%
  4. Cardiac filling during CPR occurs passively during the upstroke of compression
  5. Forward flow during external cardiac compression is due to direct compression of the heart between the sternum and vertebral bodies

Category: MCQ

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